/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
How come there have been very large Chinese communities in Southeast Asia for centuries, but there haven't been very large communities of Southeast Asian peoples in China?
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How come that even though the bourbon kings reformed Spanish ruled in 18th century, it seems the empire never followed suit?
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Does Machiavelli show any affection towards republics in The Prince (indirectly or blatantly) or is this solely in the Discourses?
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I was having a discussion with my friends about the validity of torture as a means of extracting information and thwarting terrorist attacks. In the past few decades have waterboarding and other extraction means ever actually prevented any terrorist attacks?
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